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시험 번호/코드: 6005-1
시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 Implementation Exam)
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NO.1 A customer has installed a Media Gateway Controller (MGC) and would like to change
the baud rite
settings for the SDI ports, The bind rates for all Serial Data Interface (SDI) ports on the MGC
are
configurable through Call Server Which overlay is used to configure the MGC SDI ports?
A. LD 137
B. LD 117
C. LD 97
D. LD 17
Answer: D

Avaya자격증   6005-1   6005-1최신덤프   6005-1

NO.2 A customer is preparing to install software on the CPMG Server and would like to
display the boot
sequence on the system terminal for the BIOS ROM, and Operating System Which port on
the CPMG
services this information?
A. Frontface TTY Port 2
B. Frontface TTY Port 1
C. Backplane 3-port connection TTY Port 0
D. Frontface Embedded LAN (ELAN) port0
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer has asked if the Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls, 7.0 system can
prowde Executive
users with the ability to selectively drop people that have been added to a conference Based
on the
print-outs and assuming the CSD Key has been programmed and the Class of Service
assigned is CDCA
which capabilities are current available to the user of extension 2006?
A. The user can not see the conference display count or selectively disconnect callers
B. The user can see the conferee display count and can selectively disconnect callers
C. The user can see the conferee display count but can not selectively disconnect callers
D. The user cannot see the conferee display count but can selectively disconnect callers
Answer: B

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NO.4 A technician has previously scheduled Subscriber Manager to build a new telephone
account for the
subscriber John Smith at midnight. However, the next morning it is discovered an account
has not been
provisioned What should be done next?
A. Look at ss_common logs in Linux base
B. Within UCM, look at OAM logs under Tools->logs
C. Within UCM, look at Security Event logs under Tools-> logs
D. Look at cs_console logs in Linux base
Answer: B

Avaya자격증   6005-1   6005-1   6005-1

NO.5 A technician is planning to implement a single IP telephony node for a Co-Resident
Communication
Server (CS) 1000E system at release 7.0 Which components can be configured within the
node?
A. Virtual trunk gateways, virtual loops, Personal directory, IM and presence publisher
B. SMRN for MAS, SIP Line Gateway, Personal Directory
C. IP Media services, SIP Line Gateway, Personal directory, SIP Gateway
D. SIP Line Gateway, TPS, Personal directory, AML link, Voice gateway codecs
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer purchased a new Communication Server 1000E SA system with five media
gateways which
include MG 1: CPMG (Call Server, Signaling Server, Media Gateway Controller) MG2: Media
Gateway
Controller MG3: Media Gateway Controller MG4: Media Gateway Controller MG5: Media
Gateway
Controller Which statement is true regarding the configuration of Media Gateway 1.?
A. The Call Server and Media Gateway share the same ELAN IP address
B. The Call Server, Signaling Server, and Media Gateway share the same ELAN IP address.
C. The Call Server and Media Gateway have different IP addresses
D. The call Server, Signaling Server, and Media Gateway have different IP addresses
Answer: C

Avaya자격증   6005-1최신덤프   6005-1   6005-1시험문제

NO.7 A technician is upgrading an exiting option 11C Rls. 5.5 system to a Communication
Server (CS) 1000E
Rls. 7.0 standard Availability with a single Media Gateway 1000E chasses . A CPMG, Co-
Resident Server
card is being deployed during the upgrade. This is a stand-alone system that is not part of a
larger
network so the CPMG will act as its own Primary Security Server Which supplication
deployment
combination will be deployed on the CPMG server for this customer?
A. CS+SS+EM
B. CS+SS+SIPL
C. CS+SS
D. CS+SS+NRS
Answer: A

Avaya시험문제   6005-1   6005-1   6005-1자격증

NO.8 A CUSTOMER WITH A Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 5.5 with two IPMGs is
upgrading their
system to release 7.0 The upgraded system will have two IP Media Gateways Which two
statements are
true regarding DSP resources for the IP Media Gateways in the upgraded system? (Choose
two)
A. DSP resources are no longer required for inter-IPMG calls
B. DSP resources are localized to a particular IPMG where the DSP resource is located
C. DSP resources are considered system resources and are not localized to a particular
chassis
D. DSP resources are required for TDM to IP calls
Answer: B, D

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NO.9 A customer has deployed a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Ris.7.0 system at their
site, and have
asked that a swap using the using the Element Manager Pones tool on the two telephone
sets shown in
the print-out be performed What should the customer be told regarding this request?
A. These two telephones cannot be swapped because they do not have compatible TN types
B. These two telephones can be swapped because they are both assigned to TGAR 1
C. These two telephones can be swapped because they both have the same VCE Class of
service
D. These two telephones can not be swapped because they are not in the same Call Pickup
group
Answer: A

Avaya pdf   6005-1   6005-1

NO.10 A Customer has deployed a Communication Server000 Rls. 7.0 system at their site
Their states
department is expanding and has asked that five new telephones be added with the same
capabilities as
the existing telephones in the department Which programming command should be used to
complete this
task?
A. Move to DN
B. Move form TN
C. Copy from DN
D. Copy from TN
Answer: D

Avaya   6005-1   6005-1 dumps

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시험 번호/코드: 7004-1
시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura® Maintenance Exam)
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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the SDRR programming options shown in the exhibit, which SDRR programming would allow a
user to dial 1-900-867-3333, but not successfully dial any other 1-900 based number?
A. Table 1
B. Table 2
C. Table 3
D. Table 4
Answer: A

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer ¯ s pr ogr a mmed dat abase shown i n t he exhi bit and AC 1 = 9, over whi ch RLI will a call
placed to 9-1-912-534-2222 complete?
A. RLI 9
B. RLI 4
C. RLI 3
D. RLI 2
E. call will not complete as dialed
Answer: B

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NO.3 For a situation where you use the CDP feature at a switch equipped with the MARS software package,
which statement are correct? (Choose two)
A. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that are the same as the assignedNARS Access Cades.
B. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that aredistinct from thoseassigned NARS Access Cades.
C. You can integrate CDP numbers with the NARS Uniform Dialing Plan (UDP).
D. Youcannot shareRoute Lists,Digit Manipulation tables and Time-of-Day schedule withNARS.
Answer: B,C

Avaya기출문제   7004-1자료   7004-1인증   7004-1자료

NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
Consider a company ¯ s di ali ng pl an shown i n t he exhi bit and an exa mpl e f or it s r equi r e ment s:
A station user at the company, with Location Code 221, placed an ESN call, dialing 7-221-2581. This
would be an On-Net call and the NARS programming must remove the LOC code and dial the DN
internally.
What programming would remove the location code for a call dialed within the originating Communication
Server 1000 to a DN on that same Communication Server 1000?
A. Each site would have its own Location Code programmed as a Home Location Code(HLOC) under
Translation Table #1 in their CS 1000.
B. The location codes for each site would be programmed under the LOC programming in Translation
Table #2 at all locations.
C. Home NPA Codes (HNPA) for each site would be programmed under Translation Table #1 at each
location in their CS 1000.
D. Each site would have the Location Codesfor all sites programmed as Home Location Codes (HLOC) in
Translation Table #1 of their CS 1000.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has asked if the Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system can route anyone that dial an
unassigned number in the customer ¯ s DI D r ange t o t he Att endant.
In reviewing the current configuration as shown in the exhibit, what do you conclude?
(Choose two)
A. only internalstation users are routing to the Attendant
B. internal station users and non tie line users are routing to the Attendant
C. all caller types are receiving an overflow tone
D. NET_DATA Attendant and tie trunk users are receiving an overflow tone
Answer: B

Avaya시험문제   7004-1 pdf   7004-1

NO.6 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. Their sales
department is expanding and you have been asked to add Ave new telephones with the same capabilities
as the existing telephones in the department.
Which programming command should you use to complete this task.?
A. Move to DN
B. Move from TN
C. Copy from DN
D. Copy from TN
Answer: D

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NO.7 The Satellite Link Control feature ensures that the configuration of a call does not include more than one
communications satellite trunk. Tandem trunk calls, when connected through more than one
communication satellite trunk, are subject to transmission distortion due to propagation.
Which parameters are required to be equipped or configured for Satellite Link Control in the
Communication Server 1000?
A. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
B. Route must be configured with STD or ETN signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
C. Network Transfer (NXFR) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN2 or ESN3 signaling
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
D. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 or ESN5 signaling.
Route must be programmed with a Traveling Class of Service (TCOS)
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer has a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. You have been asked to
add the Call Pickup feature to the ten IP telephones in the sales department. The customer wants to be
sure active calls are not lost when the change are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled allowed you to ensure changes to the telephones
are not transmitted to the call server until the telephone is not busy?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

Avaya   7004-1덤프   7004-1기출문제   7004-1   7004-1   7004-1최신덤프

NO.9 An administrator is programming an NRS for the first time on a new Communication Server 1000
system RIS. 7.0 system. When attempting to add the Service Domain, it cannot be added as the Add
button is grayed out in the NRS.
Which tasked should you perform to resolve this issue?
A. reinstall the Signaling Server Software
B. reinstall the NRS software
C. switch from Standby database to Active database
D. switch from Active database to Standby database
Answer: D

Avaya기출문제   7004-1   7004-1   7004-1

NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer Route List index shown in the exhibit, what is the first expensive route that a
call placed on that RLI could take?
A. Entry 0
B. Entry 1
C. Entry 2
D. Entry 3
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: 6102
시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya Virtual Services Platform 9000 Implementation Exam)
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NO.1 Which statement about the local router MAC addresses on RSMLT aggregation switches
(cluster)
is true?
A. On a RSMLT aggregation switch pair, local router MAC addresses are exchanged, and only
used in case of switch failure.
B. On a RSMLT aggregation switch pair, local router MAC addresses are exchanged, and used for
data forwarding.
C. On a RSMLT aggregation switch pair, local virtual MAC addresses is exchanged, and used for
data forwarding.
D. RSMLT aggregation switches are not exchanging local router MAC addresses, but are using
the IP destination address to forward traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A campus network requirement is to introduce Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) in the
existing Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 core. The technician needs to configure VRF on the VSP
9000. Which statement represents the proper order for configuring a new VRF?
A. Create a new VLAN, add an IP address, create a VRF, and move the VLAN to the new VRF.
B. Create a VRF, add an IP address, create a new VLAN, and move the VLAN to the new VRF.
C. Create a VRF, create a new VLAN, add an IP address, and move the VLAN to the new VRF.
D. Create VRF, create a new VLAN, move the VLAN to the new VRF, and add an IP address.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which three are secure protocols that Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 supports? (Choose
three)
A. SNMPv3
B. HTTPS
C. FTP
D. SNMPv2
E. SSH
Answer: A,B,E

Avaya   6102기출문제   6102자격증   6102

NO.4 A Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 chassis will need to terminate the following
connections:
four 10GbE: 10GBaseER core connections in a redundant DMLT configuration 80 GbE
1000BaseLX single uplink connections to the edge stackable switches two Copper 1000BaseT
connections to a couple of directly attached IDS appliances
The 10GbE core connections must ensure non-blocking performance.
Which hardware configuration is the most cost effective and meets the above requirements?
A. Install two 9024XL cards, two 9048GB cards, one 9048GB card.
B. Install two 9024XL cards, two 9048GB cards.
C. Install two 9024XL cards, one 9048GB card, one 9048GT card.
D. Install three 9024XL cards.
Answer: C

Avaya   6102시험문제   6102자격증

NO.5 A technician has enabled VLACP on the IST connection, and wants, to verify that is operating
properly. When using the show vlacp interface command, what is the timeout value for the IST
connection?
A. short
B. 3,000
C. 500
D. slow
E. long
Answer: E

Avaya   6102시험문제   6102기출문제   6102   6102

NO.6 Simple Loop Prevention Protocol (SLPP) provides active protection against layer 2 network
loops on a per-VLAN basis. For the SLPP Tx process, the network administrator decides on which
VLANs to enable SLPP. The hello packets are then replicated out all ports that are members of
the SLPP-enabled VLAN. Given the following information:
A = InterSwitch Trunk (IST)
B = Split MultiLink Trunk (SMLT)
#1 VSP 9000
#2 VSP 9000
#3 ERS 4500
When setting up the SLPP Rx process, which configuration role is setup on VSP #1
A. The VSP #1 Rx process is enabled on all VLANs to monitor for the VSP #3 SLPP packets.
B. The VSP # 1 Rx process is enabled on port 3/1 and the IST ports to monitor for the VSP #2
SLPP packets.
C. The VSP #1 Rx process is enabled on all SMLT VLANs to monitor for the VSP #2 SLPP
packets.
D. The VSP #1 Rx process is enabled on port 3/1 to monitor for the VSP #2 SLPP packets.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 chassis has the following connections:
Four 10GBaseER core connections in ports 3/4 , 3/8, 4/4, 4/8 (9024XL cards)
40 Copper 100BaseT connections for server aggregation (9048GT card)
How many Switch Fabric (SF) modules need to be installed in the roar of the chassis to ensure that
all of the IO cards operate at full performance, even if a single SF modules fails (n + 1 SF
redundancy)?
A. Install three SFs in St modules 1, 2, 4.
B. Install four SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4.
C. Install five SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
D. Install six SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
Answer: D

Avaya덤프   6102기출문제   6102

NO.8 In the current business environment everyone is being asked to do more with fewer physical
resources. Using visualization allows the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 to initiate the services
provided.By using VRF-Lite, what does the VSP 9000 eliminate the need for?
A. SMLT
B. RSMLT
C. Non-overlapping addresses
D. Multiple physical router
Answer: D

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NO.9 Flight Recorder can be used on the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 to help identify
problems. When can a Flight Recorder snapshot be taken?
A. When the VSP has to be booted into the diagnostic mode
B. Only after a warning message is logged
C. Anytime
D. Every hour
Answer: C

Avaya시험문제   6102   6102   6102   6102시험문제

NO.10 The Chassis Area Network (CAN) uses the SERDES to connect which modules in the Virtual
Services Platform (VSP) 9000?
A. Switch Fabric cards and I/O cards
B. CP curds and Switch Fabric cards
C. CP cards and Switch Fabrics in slots 1 & 4
D. All 10 I/O cards, six SF cards and two CP cards
E. CP cards and all I/O cards
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: 3104
시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya one-X® UC Soft Clients Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
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NO.1 While at a customer site, an out-of-memory space permanent generation (PermGen) error
occurs.
Which troubleshooting steps you perform so that error does not occur again?
A. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into Communication Manager as admin)
Type: /sbin/service/ reboot.
Installthe template
B. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into the Avaya one-X® CES server as admin)
Type: /sbin/service tomcat restart
Install all template
C. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into System Manager as admin/su to root)
Type: /sbin/service tomcat reboot
Login to the System Platform Web console
Install the template
D. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into cdom as admin/su to root)
Type: /sbin/service tomcat restart
Login to the System Platform Web console
Install the template
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which Avaya product performs the SIP network routing for Avaya one-X® CES?
A. Session Manager
B. Application Enablement Services
C. Communication Manager
D. System Manager
Answer: A

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5. When setting up the Presence Server in Avaya one-X® CES, you see that the Management
Service must be established.
Which IP address is used for the host Management Service?
A. Session Manager
B. Communication Manager
C. System Manager
D. System Platform
Answer: C

Avaya   3104   3104 dump
6. To prepare for the installation of the Avaya one-X® CES solution template, a new administrator
account was added to the admin security group in the enterprise Directory. When trying to login to
the Avaya one-X® CES server, you receive the error message The User name or password you
provided not recognized.
Which troubleshooting action should you take do to resolve problem?
A. Login to the Enterprise Directory and verify the user name.
B. Login as admin and change the user name in the Avaya one-X® CES server.
C. Login to the System Manager/User management/Users and synchronize the System manager
with the Avaya one-X® CES server.
D. Login to the System Platform and edit the user name.
Answer: C

Avaya   3104최신덤프   3104
7. You are in the process of investigating an error in the General Logging log. You first look at the
systemOut.log and you see that the protocol Aspect is enabled.
What is the other General log file you need to check to determine what the problem is?
A. SNMP log file
B. SAL log file
C. Trace.log file
D. Avaya one-X® CES log file
Answer: C

Avaya인증   3104   3104
8. While setting up the interface to Avaya Aura® Conferencing, one of the values is the BCAPI
host.
Which IP address is the BCAPI host?
A. Avaya Web Conferencing
B. Bridge
C. Web Portal
D. Conference Manager
Answer: A

Avaya최신덤프   3104   3104   3104
9. After the completion of Avaya one-X® CES solution template, you find that the transcoding
service
is unable to connect to the Transcoding Server in the Avaya one-X® CES system, you see that
the state is unavailable.
Which troubleshooting steps are needed to resolve problem?
A. Verify that the property values in the Transcoding server is Same as what is stated in the
System Manager server.
Determine that the /tmp/transcoding directory is present on the transcoding server
Verify the Host IP address
Restart the Avaya one-X® CES server
B. Ensure the /tmp/transcoding directory is Present on the handset Server
Verify the Host IP address is the same as the loopback IP address
Restart the transcoding Server.
C. Ensure the /tmp/transcoding Server is the same as what is stated on the Avaya one-X CES
admin web site.
Determine that the /tmp/transcoding directory is present on the Avaya one-X CES server.
Verify the host IP address is same as the loopback IP address.
D. Update the Avaya one-X CES Transcoding Services value via the Admin page.
Verify that the Host IP address and the loopback IP address are not same.
Restart the Transcoding server.
Answer: A

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10. You have a case where the calls to the user gets routed to Avaya one-X® Mobile and
voicemail at
the same time. You have verified that the user’s desktop telephone is set to Send all calls,
however, the Avaya one-X® Mobile device is disabled and the calls are registering as a call entry.
Which statement correctly describes the solution to this problem?
A. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Send all Calls on the mobile device when the Avaya
Deskphone is set to Block All Calls.
B. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Block all calls on the mobile device when Avaya Deskphone
is set to Block All Calls.
C. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Block all calls on the mobile device when Avaya Deskphone
is set to Send All Calls.
D. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Send all calls on the mobile device when Avaya Deskphone
is set to Send All Calls.
Answer: C

Avaya   3104자료   3104기출문제

NO.3 The Avaya one-X® Client Enablement Services (CES) has the choice of template sizes.
Which factor is used to decide the template size?
A. Extra feature purchased by the customer
B. The version of System Platform
C. The server type
D. The type of mobile devise that is being integrated into Avaya one-X® CES
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two servers are optional with regard to the Restart the CES solution? (Choose two)
A. Session Manager
B. LDAP
C. Communication Manager
D. Presence
Answer: B,D

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시험 번호/코드: 3107
시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya Session Border Controller Enterprise Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
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NO.1 If the Remote Worker cluster is using a Real Server IP and Real Server Port, over which
protocols
are these registration requests routed?
A. HTTP/HTTPS
B. LDAP/PPM
C. FTP/SFTP
D. RTP/SFTP
Answer: A

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NO.2 When installing either configuration on the same hardware, which statement describes the
relationship between the standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”)?
A. The standalone SBC software is the same as the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”) software.
B. The standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”) must be controlled by the same EMS.
C. The standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”) are identical, regardless of hardware
platform.
D. The standalone SBC requires a different EMS from the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”).
Answer: A

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NO.3 The site survey gathers what kind of information?
A. Configuration, topology, IP addresses
B. Network bandwidth test results
C. Customer readiness data
D. Server models
Answer: C

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NO.4 Where do you implement the restriction that equipment can make calls only during a defined
period of the day?
A. Routing Profile
B. Domain Polity Administration
C. Topology Hiding Profile
D. Signaling Interface
Answer: B

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NO.5 What do Media Interfaces define?
A. The IP addresses and ports for media
B. The IP addresses and URIs
C. The RTP and TCP ports for media
D. The TLS and RTP ports for media
Answer: A

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NO.6 How many networks are subnets are required to commission the SBC and implement SIP
trunking
on an SBC located in the DMZ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which pair of elements are configured in a Server Profile?
A. The IP address, the transport protocols
B. The QoS and auto-negotiation settings
C. The Time of Day rules and server FQDN
D. The default gateway and NTP IP addresses
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which entity can also function as the Personal Profile Manager (PPM) for a Remote worker
cluster?
A. System Platform
B. Session Manager
C. Communication Manager
D. System Manager
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: RDCR08301
시험 이름: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Crystal Reports 2008 - Level Two)
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NO.1 Which three statements describe characteristics of a subreport? (Choose three.)
A.Can be inserted in any section of a primary report
B.Can contain subreports
C.Can have its own record selection
D.Does not contain a Page Header or Page Footer section
Answer:A C D

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NO.2 You want to calculate summaries on a different dataset than the main report. The summaries must be
calculated before the main report data is returned. These summaries must display once in the main report.
Which task should you perform to create the report?
A.Insert an unlinked subreport in the report header.
B.Insert an unlinked subreport in the group header.
C.Insert a linked subreport in the group header.
D.Insert a linked subreport in the report footer.
Answer:A

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NO.3 You design a Crystal report for the Sales department. It lists customer orders received year-to-date
and is grouped and subtotaled monthly by order date. It contains the selection formula: Sum
({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "monthly") > $200000. What is the highest stage of
processing that this report requires?
A.Pass 2
B.Pre-pass 3
C.Pass 1
D.Pre-pass 2
E.Pass 3
Answer:A

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NO.4 The world sales report is being sent to all regional managers. Three of the managers cover multiple
regions. You need to configure report bursting so that these managers see all of their regions. Which of
the following is true?
A.The Dynamic Recipient Data Provider should be sorted by recipient ID.
B.The Dynamic Recipient Data Provider should be sorted by region ID.
C.It is not possible to include more than one region per manager in the report.
D.No action is required as the Dynamic Recipient Data Provider will automatically sort as necessary.
Answer:A

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NO.5 You use two different ODBC DSNs that assign different data types (numeric in one data source and
string in the second data source). Which three solutions can you use to link the different data types?
(Choose three.)
A.Use an OLAP cube.
B.Use a command object.
C.Use a linked subreport.
D.Use a stored procedure.
Answer:B C D

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NO.6 How can you verify that the data displayed on a report from a database is correct by using the Show
SQL Query option?
A.Copy and run the query into the native database client utility.
B.Copy the query into the Crystal SQL command.
C.Copy and run the query into the Database Expert.
D.Copy the query into SQL+.
Answer:A

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NO.7 You create the following formula in a new Crystal report: Local NumberVar Array b; Redim b[10]; Local
NumberVar i; For i := 1 To 10 Do ( b[i] := 7 * i ); What is the correct value of b[2]?
A.14
B.140
C.70
D.7
Answer:A

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NO.8 You must create a new Crystal report that displays the top 25% of customer sales leaders. Which
method will sort the report alphabetically by customer, not by the sales summary?
A.Use a standard Top N report.
B.Use subreports with shared variables to calculate the percentage summaries then sort the results.
C.Use multiple arrays in a single report to summarize and sort the data.
D.Use a dynamic array with subreports to create the Top N summaries then sort the data correctly.
Answer:D

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NO.9 Scheduling a report and sending sub-sets of data to different users dependent on the security is called:
A.Report bursting
B.Report exporting
C.Report publishing
D.Report scheduling
Answer:A

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NO.10 What is an acceptable file type for the imported XML transform?
A.XML
B.XSL
C.VTD
D.STX
Answer:B

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NO.11 You add a custom function from the repository to a new Crystal report and want to categorize the
function. What must you do to enable the Category box?
A.Edit the custom function.
B.Disconnect the function from the repository.
C.Re-add the function to the repository.
D.Save the custom function to the report.
Answer:B

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NO.12 What must you do when unmapped report fields appear in the Map Fields dialog box?
A.Map the fields required for the report.
B.Map all required fields to subreport links.
C.Run the Dependency Checker.
D.Map fields to global variables.
Answer:A

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NO.13 How can you reduce processing time for a Crystal report?
A.Sort records on the client
B.Perform query asynchronously
C.Perform grouping on the server
D.Verify data on first refresh
Answer:C

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NO.14 You run a report and the report returns an error that fields are missing. Which feature can you use to
determine if the database structure has changed?
A.Verify Database
B.Record Selection Formula
C.Check Dependencies
D.Show SQL Query
Answer:A

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NO.15 Which three conditions might cause an error when you save a custom function? (Choose three.)
A.You used a local variable.
B.You used a summary field.
C.You used a User Function Library (UFL).
D.You used a Print State function.
Answer:B C D

Business-Objects   RDCR08301   RDCR08301

NO.16 You need to hyperlink to a customer's company name. Which syntax should you use to create the
hyperlink?
A.//"http://"+currentfieldvalue+".com"
B."http://www"+currentfieldvalue+".com"
C.//"http://www"+currentfieldvalue+".com"
D."http://www"+currentfieldvalue+"com"
Answer:B

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NO.17 In which pass do shared variables get processed?
A.Pre-pass 2
B.Pass 1
C.Pass 3
D.Pass 2
E.Pre-pass 3
Answer:D

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NO.18 You create a Crystal report that shows customer names and locations. You use a linked subreport to
display details of the orders placed so far this year by each customer. Each customer's total purchases for
last year are calculated and stored in the main report and retrieved by the subreport. The subreport must
calculate the percentage increase or decrease in orders received this year as compared to each
customer's purchases made last year. Which formula should you use to accomplish this?
A.Shared currencyVar cLYS; (Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}) ?cLYS)/cLYS;
B.Shared currencyVar cLYS (Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}) ?cLYS)/ Sum ({Orders.Order Amount});
C.Global currencyVar cLYS (Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}) ?cLYS)/cLYS;
D.currencyVar cLYS; (cLYS - Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}))/ Sum ({Orders.Order Amount});
Answer:A

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NO.19 You create a Crystal report containing basic employee contact information including an employee
photo in a primary report. Occasionally your manager must view information on an employee's
educational background, employment history or training. You decide to use On-Demand subreports to
supply the additional data. Which action retrieves the data from the database?
A.Saving the report with data
B.Selecting the subreport design tab
C.Clicking the subreport hyperlink
D.Opening the main report the first time
Answer:C

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NO.20 Which two evaluation time functions can you use in a formula which contains a manual running total?
(Choose two.)
A.BeforeReadingRecords
B.EvaluateAfter
C.WhileReadingRecords
D.WhilePrintingRecords
Answer:B D

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NO.21 Which is the earliest evaluation time function you can use in a formula which does not use any
database fields or summaries?
A.WhilePrintingRecords
B.BeforeReadingRecords
C.EvaluateAfter
D.WhileReadingRecords
Answer:B

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NO.22 The sales manager would like a sales report of last year's sales summarized first by country and then by
last year's sales summarized by sales person. Which method should you use to create the report?
A.Create a report grouped by country and add a subreport in the Report Footer grouped by sales person.
B.Create a report grouped by sales person and add a subreport in Group Header grouped by country.
C.Create a report grouped by sales person and add a subreport in the Report Footer grouped by country.
D.Create a report grouped by country and add a subreport in the Report Header grouped by sales person.
Answer:A

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NO.23 Which action should you perform to update a report to reflect a change to the database structure?
A.From the Database Menu, select Set Datasource Location.
B.From the Database Menu, select Verify Database.
C.From the Report Menu, select Refresh Report Data.
D.From the Report Menu, select Check Dependencies.
Answer:B

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NO.24 Sales Managers use a weekly sales report that includes the following columns: Sales Person, Weekly
Sales and Quota. The Sales Managers would like the ability to retrieve additional non-sales related
information on their personnel by clicking on a hyperlink. Which type of report should you create?
A.Unlinked subreport based on manager ID
B.Unlinked subreport based on employee ID
C.Linked On-Demand subreport based on employee ID
D.On-Demand subreport based on manager ID
Answer:C

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NO.25 Your test report contains the following record selection formula: {Customer.Region} = "CA" OR
DateTimeToDate ({Orders.Order Date}) > Date (2004,01,01) What is displayed when you select "Show
SQL Query? from the Database menu?
A.An SQL statement or WHERE clause
B.No SQL statement or WHERE clause
C.A server error message
D.A record selection error message
Answer:B

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NO.26 Which two methods can you use to save an unlinked subreport as a stand alone report? (Choose two.)
A.In the Preview pane, right-click the subreport and select Save Subreport As
B.In the Design tab, right-click the subreport and select Save Subreport As
C.In the Subreport Preview tab, from the File menu, select Save Report As
D.In the main report, from the File menu, select Save Report As
Answer:A B

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NO.27 Which two statements are true when you create a shared variable in a main report and pass the
variable to an On-Demand subreport? (Choose two.)
A.The main report passes the variable as a local variable.
B.The shared variable is not available for use in the subreport.
C.The shared variable is available for use in the subreport.
D.The main report must calculate the shared variable before it is available in the subreport.
E.The shared variable is calculated in the subreport.
Answer:C D

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NO.28 Which menu will allow you to import a new XML transform?
A.Report Export Options
B.Manage XML Exporting Formats
C.Manage XML Importing Formats
D.Report Import Options
Answer:B

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NO.29 You want to ensure that your Accounts Receivable listing report displays only those customers with
invoices. Which join type must you specify when you link the Customer and Invoice tables using the
Customer ID field?
A.Enforced Both Join
B.Equal Join
C.Inner Join
D.Full Inner Join
Answer:C

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NO.30 You want to design a weekly sales report that contains a list of all products sold during the week in the
Report Header. Which type of array would you use to handle the data?
A.Dynamic
B.Standard
C.Adaptive
D.Passive
Answer:A

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시험 번호/코드: SABE201
시험 이름: Business-Objects (BusinessObjects(TM) Enterprise Certified Professional XI - Level One)
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Q&A: 80 문항
업데이트: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which statement describes how corporate categories operate as a component of a content and
management plan for your BusinessObjects Enterprise system?
A.Categories must be set up to reflect each user's personal requirements.
B.Copies of objects must be added to each category where they are included.
C.Users have rights to access each object in a category based on its actual folder location.
D.Access rights to objects in categories must be set for each user.
Answer:C

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NO.2 Which two statements are true when you make changes to the report properties of a published Crystal
Report object using the Central Management Console (CMC)? (Choose two.)
A.The report file stored in the Input File Report Server (FRS) is modified.
B.The report file stored in the Input File Report Server (FRS) is not modified.
C.The changes are written to the Central Management Server (CMS) system database.
D.The changes are not written to the Central Management Server (CMS) system database.
Answer:B C

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NO.3 Which two statements are true regarding user access rights to a given object in BusinessObjects
Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A.Explicitly denied user access overrides all accumulated rights.
B.Objects inherit security from parent folders.
C.Global rights override all other rights.
D.Users inherit rights from the default group to which they belong.
Answer:A B

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NO.4 Once you grant the right to an application value (e.g. Print Documents set to Grant) to a user/group on
a specific application (e.g. Desktop Intelligence), you will still be able to grant that right (e.g. print) to one
Desktop Intelligence document but not the other Desktop Intelligence document.
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

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NO.5 How do you disable anonymous access in BusinessObjects Enterprise?
A.Within InfoView uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
B.Within Central Management Console (CMC) disable Guest account.
C.Within Central Configuration Manager (CCM) uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
D.Within Central Management Console (CMC) uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
Answer:B

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NO.6 Select two true statements about Scheduling Publications from below. (Choose two.)
A.You can schedule Publication that contains both Desktop Intelligence and Web Intelligence documents.
B.You cannot schedule Publication on a recurring basis.
C.You can test Publication before scheduling.
D.Scheduling Publications is an example of single-pass refresh bursting as oppose to multi-pass report
bursting.
Answer:C D

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NO.7 Your user groups have different functional needs and your managers would rather employ a more
complicated user group structure than create additional folder levels. What approach should you use to
create a content plan that combines logical report organization and functional user access levels?
A.Use the logical-functional group method.
B.Grant each user advanced rights to each object.
C.Use the functional-folder method.
D.Create a logical content plan.
Answer:A

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NO.8 The InfoView is mostly used for which of the following tasks:
A.Mostly for administering content
B.Exclusively for viewing reports
C.Viewing information about reports (Encyclopedia and Discussions)
D.Accessing information and some limited content administration
Answer:D

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NO.9 Select two true statements from below. (Choose two.)
A.You cannot copy Calendar objects in CMC > Calendars area of administration.
B.You can create your own Calendars in BusinessObjects Enterprise; you have to use the pre-build
business calendars only.
C.You can schedule Web Intelligence documents based on an existing calendar.
D.Calendars can be created in InfoView.
Answer:B C

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NO.10 You want department administrators to perform some basic administrative tasks that require them to
be able to access the Central Management Console (CMC). How will you give the department
administrators the right to be able to grant access to the CMC to other administrators in their own
departments?
A.In the Organize Objects area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator
group(s) and grant them the right to "Edit this object".
B.In the Manage BusinessObjects Applications area, select Central Management Console, Add the
department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to "Full control".
C.In the Manage Settings area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator
group(s) and grant them the right to "Modify the rights users have to this object".
D.In the Manage BusinessObjects Applications area, select Central Management Console, Add the
department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to "Modify the rights users have to this object".
Answer:D

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NO.11 Which statement describes the role of BusinessObjects Enterprise within the Business Objects
Business Intelligence (BI) suite of products?
A.Allows you to analyze and interact with data from both relational and OLAP data sources.
B.Provides you with an open, scalable platform that supports all of your BI tools and applications.
C.Provides you with a process for accessing data, formatting it and delivering it as information to various
users.
D.Allows you to integrate, transform and deliver enterprise data from any source.
Answer:B

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NO.12 Which steps should you follow in the Central Management Console (CMC) in order to create a new
Profile that will enable you to use a Publication to distribute personalized information to each of your store
managers? (Select the best option.)
A.Select the Publication object, click on the Schedule tab, then on Profiles and click Add.
B.Select the Publication object, click on the Source tab, then on Profiles and click Add.
C.Select the Publication object, click on the Profiles tab and click New Profile.
D.Select the Profiles object, click New Profile.
Answer:D

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NO.13 What steps should you follow to make Report A run automatically every day upon the successful
completion of Report B?
A.Working in InfoView, create a new schedule-based event. Schedule Report B to run daily, with events
and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to trigger on completion window. Schedule Report A
to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to wait for window.
B.Working in the Central Management Console, create a new schedule-based event. Schedule Report B
to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to trigger on completion
window. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events
to wait for window.
C.Working in the Central Management Console, create a new custom event. Schedule Report A to run
daily, with events and add the new custom event to the Events to wait for window. After Report B runs
successfully, trigger the custom event in the Central Management Console.
D.Working in InfoView, create a new custom event. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add
the new custom event to the Events to wait for window. After Report B runs successfully, trigger the
custom event in the Central Management Console.
Answer:B

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NO.14 A user who has always scheduled objects for the Marketing department is leaving your company.
Which method should you use in the Central Management Console (CMC) to ensure that all recurring
instances owned by this user remain in effect but become owned by the Administrator?
A.Disable the departing user then click on the Transfer recurring instances to button and select the
Administrator. Click OK.
B.Delete the departing user; all recurring instances automatically transfer to the Administrator.
C.Open each recurring instance on the object's History tab then click on Schedule for and select
Administrator. Ensure that the instance will use the same recurrence pattern and parameter values.
Delete the departing user when all instances have been duplicated.
D.Download details of all the instances then log on to the CMC as Administrator and schedule them using
the same recurrence patterns and parameter values. Delete the departing user when all instances have
been duplicated.
Answer:B

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NO.15 What options do users have for viewing reports in the Central Management Console (CMC)?
A.They can choose any viewer that is available in the CMC preferences.
B.They can view reports only with the CMC viewer.
C.They cannot view reports in the CMC, only administer the content.
D.They can view reports only with the DHTML viewers.
Answer:A

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NO.16 Tasha belongs to the Sales Support group. This group was explicitly denied the View Object right on the
Sales folder. Tasha needs to view objects in the Reports sub-folder of the Sales folder. What change
should you make?
A.Change the Sales Support group's access rights on the Sales folder to View.
B.Change Tasha's access rights to View.
C.Explicitly grant Full Control to Tasha.
D.Explicitly grant the View Object right to the Sales Support group which disables inheritance.
Answer:A

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NO.17 Which three BusinessObjects Enterprise servers interact directly with the databases that contain report
data? (Choose three.)
A.Desktop Intelligence Job Server
B.Crystal Reports Job Server
C.Crystal Reports Page Server
D.Web Intelligence Job Server
Answer:A B C

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NO.18 Which two actions does BusinessObjects Enterprise take when an instance is removed from the system?
(Choose two.)
A.Deletes the instance file from the Output File Repository Server
B.Deletes the record of the instance from the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C.Keeps the instance file in the Output File Repository Server
D.Keeps a record of the instance in the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
Answer:A B

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NO.19 Assume you are using InfoView and need to locate a specific Web Intelligence report, but you cannot
remember its name. There are 15 Web Intelligence reports in the system and you have access to all
root-level folders. What would be the best way to locate the report?
A.Browse the folders and categories
B.Filter
C.Report off the CMS database
D.Use the Advanced feature of the Search function
Answer:D

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NO.20 Where does the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure store a successful Web Intelligence
document instance?
A.The Output File Repository Server (FRS)
B.The Web Intelligence Report Server
C.The Web Intelligence Job Server
D.The Output Application Server (OAS)
Answer:A

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시험 번호/코드: SABE501V
시험 이름: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Business Objects Enterprise XI 3.0 – Update)
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NO.1 Which directory is the bootstrap file saved in by default on the Windows platform?
A. Web Services
B. Logging
C. FileStore
D. Win32_x86
Answer: D

Business-Objects   SABE501V   SABE501V자격증

NO.2 Which type of file does the replication process use to transfer content?
A. BIAR
B. REP
C. Binary
D. BOMain
Answer: A

Business-Objects인증   SABE501V   SABE501V pdf   SABE501V자료

NO.3 Which three are benefits to the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA).? (Choose three.)
A. Security
B. Administrative accessibility
C. Email notification
D. Reliability
Answer: A,B,D

Business-Objects   SABE501V   SABE501V

NO.4 How do you set-up a configuration template for a Web Intelligence Processing Server?
A. Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to the Server Template area and click on Add
New Template.
B. Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to properties of the specific server and click
on Add New Template.
C. Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to the Server Template area and click on Set
Configuration Template.
D. Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to properties of the specific server and click
on Set Configuration Template.
Answer: D

Business-Objects자료   SABE501V   SABE501V   SABE501V

NO.5 Where are the properties for the Event Server stored?
A. In the boot.ini file on the machine where the Event Server is running
B. In the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C. In the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) bootstrap file
D. In the Event Server service properties
Answer: B

Business-Objects   SABE501V dumps   SABE501V

NO.6 Which three application servers can you deploy Web Archive (WAR) files to using wdeploy? (Choose
three.)
A. Oracle Containers for J2EE
B. SAPNetweaver
C. JRun
D. Sun Java Application Server
Answer: A,B,D

Business-Objects   SABE501V자격증   SABE501V pdf   SABE501V덤프

NO.7 Four users in the Human Resources department and six users in the Finance department need to edit
existing Web Intelligence documents. How would you set-up a secure folder structure for the different
departments so that each group of users can edit existing Web Intelligence documents?
A. Modify advanced rights on all groups.
B. Apply a predefined access level to all folders.
C. Create a custom access level and apply it to all folders.
D. Modify advanced rights on a top level folder.
Answer: C

Business-Objects자격증   SABE501V   SABE501V pdf

NO.8 Which replication object would you schedule?
A. Replication Job
B. Replication List
C. Replication Connection
D. Replication Package
Answer: A

Business-Objects   SABE501V   SABE501V   SABE501V   SABE501V

NO.9 Which web language was used to develop InfoView?
A. Perl
B. Java
C. PHP
D. C++
Answer: B

Business-Objects   SABE501V   SABE501V

NO.10 What do you see when you view a Crystal Report instance that has both saved data and two
successful instances?
A. The latest data from the database
B. The oldest data from the database
C. The oldest successful instance
D. The newest successful instance
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: 050-V37
시험 이름: RSA (CSE RSA enVision Essentials (new update))
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NO.1 In RSA enVision UDS development, Value Maps, Regular Expressions, and Functions are types of
which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Data Reduction
B.XML Parsing Rules
C.Conditional Variables
D.Summary Data Buckets
Answer:C

RSA   050-V37   050-V37   050-V37

NO.2 If a customer has a specific syslog that they would like to use as part of a demonstration, you can load it
into enVision for reporting and querying using which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.The lsdata utility to import the syslog file
B.Copying the syslog file into the IPDB data directory
C.Using the Data Injector utility to collect data from the syslog file
D.Using the Custom Reports ?View External Data function of the administrative GUI
Answer:C

RSA   050-V37   050-V37자료   050-V37인증   050-V37

NO.3 What does RSA enVision do when it is set to auto-discover new devices? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Adds new supported devices automatically to the list of monitored devices in the Manage Monitored
Devices screen
B.Temporarily holds in the "New Device" cache and begins to collect data after it is approved by an
administrator
C.RSA enVision alerts members of the "administrators" group to add a new device to the list of monitored
devices
D.RSA enVision automatically exports device attributes to an XML file for an administrator to review
Answer:A

RSA자료   050-V37자료   050-V37   050-V37   050-V37인증

NO.4 The administrator can use the RSA enVision's user authentication feature to complete what tasks?
(Check two answers.)
A.Use an existing Microsoft Active Directory authentication server
B.Associate administrative users with an authentication server
C.Require enVision users to change passwords on a periodic basis
D.Enforce a pre-defined set of 'prohibited passwords' based on a dictionary file
E.Utilize existing domain authenticated user accounts as the basis for enVision user accounts
Answer:A E

RSA dumps   050-V37   050-V37인증   050-V37   050-V37 dumps

NO.5 When planning an RSA enVision installation, which statements below about the Site Name are
important considerations? (Check two answers.)
A.The Site Name must match an enVision domain name
B.The Site Name must be unique within an enVision domain and cannot be the same as the customer's
NetBIOS domain name
C.The Site Name must not contain any numeric or punctuation characters
D.The Site Name must have the same suffix as the Windows domain in which it resides
E.The Site Name must not match the name of any existing Windows domain in the network
Answer:B E

RSA   050-V37   050-V37덤프

NO.6 When initially setting up a multiple appliance site, only the D-SRV unit is connected to a LAN ?all of the
other units in the site then connect directly to the D-SRV.
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

RSA자료   050-V37 pdf   050-V37   050-V37기출문제

NO.7 When would you expect a difference between the log information captured by RSA enVision and the
log information generated by a device? (Check the one best answer.)
A.When the source IP address of the device is unknown to enVision.
B.When the device is configured to send only certain events to syslog.
C.When "Collect All Logs" is left unchecked in the Manage Devices screen.
D.When the device is a known device and enVision recognizes the events to be non-critical.
Answer:B

RSA   050-V37덤프   050-V37   050-V37자격증

NO.8 Why would the checkbox of a device type be grayed out On the Manage Device Types screen? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It's not licensed
B.Device is unknown but data can be collected
C.Device is known but not compatible with enVision
D.Device is associated with a monitored device within the NIC domain
Answer:D

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NO.9 What happens if an event source device type is not immediately recognized by RSA enVision? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It will be defined as "unknown" and for a limited time enVision will collect event data it generates
B.Data from that device will be discarded until the device type can be defined
C.An alert is generated by default to call an administrator's attention to the device
D.The UDS Service will create a parsing XML file for the device and place data in the NIC Parse Cache
Answer:A

RSA   050-V37덤프   050-V37기출문제   050-V37덤프

NO.10 After creating a customized Report Menu system, which RSA enVision service(s) need to be re-started?
A.Only the NIC Webserver Service
B.The NIC Webserver and NIC Server Services
C.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server and NIC Locator Services
D.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server, NIC Locator, and NIC Packager Services
Answer:A

RSA인증   050-V37 pdf   050-V37자격증   050-V37

NO.11 What are three steps that are part of the device interpretation process using UDS? (Check the three
best answers.)
A.Configure devices to send log data to RSA enVision
B.Device identification (i.e. vendor, device name, class, sub-class, etc.)
C.Identification of device collection method
D.Message definition
E.List of known vulnerabilities
F.Data parsing
Answer:B D F

RSA   050-V37자격증   050-V37

NO.12 How many Remote Collectors (RC) can each Database Server (D-SRV) support? (Check the one best
answer.)
A.Eight (8)
B.Ten (10)
C.Sixteen (16)
D.Thirty two (32)
Answer:C

RSA   050-V37   050-V37 pdf   050-V37 pdf

NO.13 When opening a connection in Event Explorer, you can define which of the following features? (Check
the three correct answers.)
A.Devices
B.Event categories
C.Log messages
D.Time frame
E.Local collector
Answer:A B D

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NO.14 True or false. If a conflict exists with the default enVision collection port after appliance installation, the
Collector Service can be modified to configure event collection on a different port.
A.True
B.false
Answer:A

RSA   050-V37   050-V37시험문제   050-V37

NO.15 The UDS development process involves which of the following tasks? (Check two answers.)
A.Verifying XML syntax and parsing
B.Using XML to convert device logs to IPDB format
C.Mapping a device name to an existing enVision device
D.Creating an XML file to define header and message information
Answer:A D

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NO.16 When creating a new enVision user account, which User Group is the account added to by default?
(Check the one best answer.)
A.Report-users
B.Administrators
C.Temporary-users
D.All-applications-users
Answer:D

RSA   050-V37   050-V37   050-V37   050-V37 dump

NO.17 When setting up a Check Point firewall device, which of the following is a good practice that should be
completed first? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Stop and restart the Check Point Firewall Service
B.Stop and restart the enVision NIC Collector Service
C.Verify that the Check Point Log Viewer is receiving events
D.Set an 8-character key to establish an authenticated connection
Answer:C

RSA시험문제   050-V37 dumps   050-V37 pdf   050-V37 dump   050-V37자료   050-V37인증

NO.18 Which RSA enVision module is used to configure the enVision system as well as to monitor its health
and performance? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Overview module
B.Alerts Module
C.Analysis Module
D.Reports Module
Answer:A

RSA   050-V37 dumps   050-V37자격증   050-V37인증

NO.19 In the RSA enVision UDS process, what is the purpose of performing Data Reduction steps? (Check the
one best answer.)
A.Improve speed and efficiency of data processing
B.Compress unsupported device data prior to storage
C.Apply ISO-approved abbreviations to message text strings
D.Decrease the rate that unsupported device data is collected
Answer:A

RSA   050-V37시험문제   050-V37

NO.20 What two tasks does UDS complete when the command "uds reate" is executed to create a device?
(Check the two best answers.)
A.Creates the files .ini, client.txt, vendor.txt and msg.xml
B.Immediately starts collecting data from the new device
C.Identifies all associated devices that have been configured
D.Create all directory structures required for the device
E.Lists all devices to verify that the device does not already exist
Answer:A D

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